Predestination
Too
This
further revised section from my PhD post-viva final revisions, connects to my
most recent 2 Peter 3, article.
PhD
revised
In my
mind, the philosophical and theological concept of compatibilism, although the
term is not used, is implied in Scripture. The subject of predestination
for salvation, for example, is a complex theological discussion and could be a
topic for a Biblical Greek thesis.
However,
within Ephesians 1, ‘predestined’ which is προορίσας[1] within
Ephesians 1: 5,[2] and in the context is
‘predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ’ and προορισθέντες[3] at Ephesians 1: 11, as in ‘we have obtained
an inheritance, having been predestined according to his purpose’ appear to
support Reformed compatibilist notions.
Strong
defines προορίζω[4] which is the root word connected to the forms of
the word in Ephesians 1, as to limit in advance in figurative terms,[5] and to predetermine, determine before, ordain, and
predestinate.[6] Bauer defines the root word as
meaning to decide before hand, predestine of God and applies this definition to
Ephesians 1: 5 and 11. [7] Minimally, there appears reasonable textual
support from this verse[8] that could support
a Reformed compatibilistic perspective on how God chooses persons for his
ultimate culminated Kingdom.
2
Peter 3 article revised
Quote
Erickson:
‘We must distinguish between two different senses of God’s will, which we will refer to as God’s “wish” (will1) and God’s will (will2).’ (361).
Will1 is God’s general intention and Will2 is God’s specific intention.
Or it could be stated Will1=God’s perfect will and Will2=God’s permissible will.
However, there is a theological and philosophical problem. If it is God’s eternal permissible will to save only some, then God caused this in a sense. I reason it can be traced to the fallen human nature that works through limited free will. As my Hebrews professor told me at Columbia Bible College (paraphrased), although we all have a fallen nature outside of Christ by default, some have a fallen nature that will never accept Christ and be acceptable to God. Others will be regenerated.
Therefore, God’s eternal, perfect will would actually be for some to reject him and remain everlastingly outside of his Kingdom, although in a sense, God wishes it would be otherwise, as can be seen biblically and theologically in 2 Peter 3: 9 and 1 Timothy 2: 4. There are various interpretations, however.
‘We must distinguish between two different senses of God’s will, which we will refer to as God’s “wish” (will1) and God’s will (will2).’ (361).
Will1 is God’s general intention and Will2 is God’s specific intention.
Or it could be stated Will1=God’s perfect will and Will2=God’s permissible will.
However, there is a theological and philosophical problem. If it is God’s eternal permissible will to save only some, then God caused this in a sense. I reason it can be traced to the fallen human nature that works through limited free will. As my Hebrews professor told me at Columbia Bible College (paraphrased), although we all have a fallen nature outside of Christ by default, some have a fallen nature that will never accept Christ and be acceptable to God. Others will be regenerated.
Therefore, God’s eternal, perfect will would actually be for some to reject him and remain everlastingly outside of his Kingdom, although in a sense, God wishes it would be otherwise, as can be seen biblically and theologically in 2 Peter 3: 9 and 1 Timothy 2: 4. There are various interpretations, however.
The question arises if God wishes to save all people as in all individuals
or all peoples? I have seen the all peoples explanation raised in Reformed
writing and dialogue.
This places doubt that God's wish is God's perfect will. Rather it may be a divine wish. God wishes salvation for all (universalism) within his will, but it will not occur.
This places doubt that God's wish is God's perfect will. Rather it may be a divine wish. God wishes salvation for all (universalism) within his will, but it will not occur.
This
is not outlandish or unreasonable. On one hand, God desires me not sin, he does
not tempt me (James 1), but on the other hand God created humanity with an
eternal plan of salvation from sin. This implies significantly free creatures
that will sin is the eternal plan.
God, in my view, could create significantly free finite creatures than remain morally perfect, in a finite sense. The classic example, being angels that did not fall. Jesus Christ was both God and perfect man. He never appealed to the sinful nature inherited by Adam and Eve.
God, in my view, could create significantly free finite creatures than remain morally perfect, in a finite sense. The classic example, being angels that did not fall. Jesus Christ was both God and perfect man. He never appealed to the sinful nature inherited by Adam and Eve.
The atonement, resurrection and gospel work are from and in God’s
perfect will (Ephesians 1, those chosen in Christ before the foundation of the
word, implied eternal), I reason, and this leads to God ultimately producing
humanity as desired within the Kingdom of God from start to finish.
BAUER, W. (1979) A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament,
Translated by Eric H. Wahlstrom, Chicago, The University of Chicago Press.
ERICKSON, MILLARD (1994) Christian Theology, Grand Rapids, Baker Book House.
STRONG, J. (1890)(1986) Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, Pickering, Ontario, Welch Publishing Company.
THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT (1993) Stuttgart, United Bible Societies.
ERICKSON, MILLARD (1994) Christian Theology, Grand Rapids, Baker Book House.
STRONG, J. (1890)(1986) Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, Pickering, Ontario, Welch Publishing Company.
THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT (1993) Stuttgart, United Bible Societies.
[8] I
realize many other verses could be examined concerning this subject. I
provide Ephesians 1 as a prime Reformed example within a limited space allotted
for this topic.